Police Reach $6,500,000 Settlement For Shooting Walter Scott in the Back, where is the CLOSURE?


 I allege the following;

Scott Walker was shot in the back by a police officer, his family settled for some 6 million, this is so illegal in my mind, for all legal matters arising in America are in part possible by the Jurisdiction of the court and by the ability of a party to sue based on the Article III of the US constitution, in cases like these, the Article III uses 3 tenets to decide the case, Damage, redress and if redressed the redress must be traced back to the damage, but the victim is dead, he gets no redress, how can this case get settled? These administrative courts are unconstitutional, because the settlement would have had to come under the legal power of a stipulation, signed by the parties, the Cop would have admitted no wrong and therefore he pays no fare, the parties would sign away any right to further litigation, in lieu of a financial settlement, how can a settlement be possible if the parties decided that the Cop did no wrong? this contract is void on its face and therefore the aggrieved party can forever sue the city until the Cop is prosecuted for the alleged crime.

The crime is clear in this case he was shot in his back, the laws of the United States are based much so, in my opinion on certain Christian values, people are always saying that this is a Christian country, so lets assume this is so, in this case I allege the value is ” an eye for an eye ” here the family settled an eye for some worthless paper money, how can they spend a penny of this money and not feel the pain every-time they spend a penny? where is the closure?

How did the settling parties decide on what the life was worth? any measure used was a total disrespect to the human life. This brings into question is this a Christian country? or is it ruled by devils. I am not a religious person so I have no belief in these values. I value life which has no marriage with any religion at all.

I further allege that his family do not have the right to collect money as a result of his death. I am unaware of his age, but he would need to give consent I would imagine,  why do these no fault court exist? how can there be an admission of a no fault yet agree to a settlement? how can one settle a no fault with a financial windfall?

The pain of spending this money by his next of kin should be construe as another mortal death, except that this certain death does not die, can they buy a home, a car or underwear or food? how will they live in that home every day?

Where is the fucking closure?

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About Here and Now

I rant about issues concerning foreclosure, real estate law and any topic of interest. Normally my day job is Fashion and Costume Design. I like writing and reading interesting subjects.
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